Yes, a force can certainly set a motionless object in motion. According to Newton's first law of motion, an object at rest will remain at rest, and an object in motion will continue moving at a constant velocity unless acted upon by an unbalanced force. When a force is applied to a stationary object, it causes the object to accelerate and thus set it in motion.

Mathematically, Newton's second law of motion describes this relationship between force (F), mass (m), and acceleration (a): F = ma. In this equation, the force applied to the object is directly proportional to the mass of the object and the acceleration produced.

Therefore, if a force of sufficient magnitude is applied to an object initially at rest, it can overcome the object's inertia and cause it to begin moving. The net force acting on the object determines the magnitude and direction of its acceleration.